EC-Council CEH v12 Free Practice Test

Certified Ethical Hacker (CEH) Overview

## Introduction
The Certified Ethical Hacker (CEH) is a globally recognized certification that validates information security professionals' knowledge in ethical hacking and penetration testing. The certification is provided by EC-Council (International Council of E-Commerce Consultants).

## Course Content
CEH consists of 20 comprehensive modules covering:

1. Introduction to Ethical Hacking
2. Footprinting and Reconnaissance
3. Scanning Networks
4. Enumeration
5. Vulnerability Analysis
6. System Hacking
7. Malware Threats
8. Sniffing
9. Social Engineering
10. Denial-of-Service
11. Session Hijacking
12. Evading IDS, Firewalls, and Honeypots
13. Hacking Web Servers
14. Hacking Web Applications
15. SQL Injection
16. Hacking Wireless Networks
17. Hacking Mobile Platforms
18. IoT and OT Hacking
19. Cloud Computing
20. Cryptography

## Learning Methods

1. **Official Training** (Recommended)
- Instructor-led classroom training
- Live online training
- Self-paced learning through iLearn
- Hands-on labs and practical exercises
- Access to official courseware and tools

2. **Self-Study**
- Official study guides and materials
- Practice labs
- Online resources
- Practice tests

## Exam Details
- 125 multiple-choice questions
- 4 hours duration
- Passing score: 70%
- Proctored exam at testing center or online
- Questions based on real-world scenarios
- Practical knowledge testing

## Important Notes

1. **Version Agnostic Certification**
- The CEH certificate does not display version numbers (v12 or v13)
- The certification remains valid regardless of version studied
- Skills and knowledge are transferable between versions

2. **Course Material Access**
- Students enrolling in CEH v12 receive:
- Latest CEH v13 courseware
- Updated tools and resources
- Access to new learning materials
- Practice labs compatible with latest version

3. **Certification Validity**
- Valid for 3 years
- Requires renewal through EC-Council program
- Continuous learning and updates recommended

## Prerequisites
- Minimum 2 years of information security related experience
- Understanding of TCP/IP
- Basic knowledge of Linux
- Strong understanding of network and computer security concepts

## Career Benefits
- Recognition as a certified ethical hacker
- Enhanced job opportunities
- Higher salary potential
- Practical penetration testing skills
- Global networking opportunities

## Recommended Study Approach
1. Study official courseware thoroughly
2. Complete all hands-on labs
3. Practice with real-world scenarios
4. Take practice exams
5. Join study groups and forums
6. Keep updated with latest security trends

The CEH certification demonstrates professional competency in identifying vulnerabilities and weaknesses in target systems using the same knowledge and tools as malicious hackers, but in a lawful and legitimate manner.

MODULE 1: INTRODUCTION TO ETHICAL HACKING

1) You are attempting to run an Nmap port scan on a web server. Which of the following commands would result in a scan of common ports with the least amount of noise in order to evade IDS?

A. nmap -A - Pn
B. nmap -sP -p-65535 -T5
C. nmap -sT -O -T0
D. nmap -A --host-timeout 99 -T1

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: -T0 option is called "paranoid" because it's slow to try and avoid detection. While -T0 and -T1 may be useful for avoiding IDS alerts, they will take an extraordinarily long time to scan thousands of machines or ports.

2) Clark is a professional hacker. He created and configured multiple domains pointing to the same host to switch quickly between the domains and avoid detection.
Identify the behavior of the adversary in the above scenario.

A. Unspecified proxy activities
B. Use of command-line interface
C. Data staging
D. Use of DNS tunneling

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Unspecified proxy activities occur when an adversary creates and configures multiple domains pointing to the same host, allowing them to switch quickly between domains to avoid detection.

3) Attacker Lauren has gained the credentials of an organization's internal server system, and she was often logging in during irregular times to monitor the network activities. The organization was skeptical about the login times and appointed security professional Robert to determine the issue. Robert analyzed the compromised device to find incident details such as the type of attack, its severity, target, impact, method of propagation, and vulnerabilities exploited.

What is the incident handling and response (IH&R) phase, in which Robert has determined these issues?

A. Incident triage
B. Preparation
C. Incident recording and assignment
D. Eradication

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: In the incident triage phase, identified security incidents are analyzed, validated, categorized and prioritized. The IH&R team analyzes the compromised device to find incident details like attack type, severity, target, impact and propagation method.

4) At what stage of the cyber kill chain theory model does data exfiltration occur?

A. Weaponization
B. Actions on objectives
C. Command and control
D. Installation

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Data exfiltration occurs during the Actions on Objectives stage, which is the final stage of the cyber kill chain where attackers accomplish their goals like data theft.

MODULE 2: FOOTPRINTING AND RECONNAISSANCE

5) Which of the following Google advanced search operators helps an attacker in gathering information about websites that are similar to a specified target URL?

A. [inurl:]
B. [info:]
C. [site:]
D. [related:]

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The [related:] operator can be used to find websites that are similar to a specified URL. This can help identify other associated websites.

6) Wilson, a professional hacker, targeted an organization for financial benefit and plans to compromise its systems by sending malicious emails. For this purpose, he uses a tool to track the emails of the target and extracts information such as sender identities, mail servers, sender IP addresses, and sender locations from different public sources. He also checks if an email address was leaked using the haveibeenpwned.com API.

Which of the following tools is used by Wilson in the above scenario?

A. Factiva
B. ZoomInfo
C. Netcraft
D. Infoga

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Infoga is a tool used to extract information about email addresses including sender identities, mail servers, IP addresses and locations from various public sources. It can also check if email addresses have been compromised using the HaveIBeenPwned API.

7) Emily, an extrovert obsessed with social media, posts a large amount of private information, photographs, and location tags of recently visited places. Realizing this, James, a professional hacker, targets Emily and her acquaintances, conducts a location search to detect their geolocation by using an automated tool, and gathers information to perform other sophisticated attacks.

What is the tool employed by James in the above scenario?

A. ophcrack
B. VisualRoute
C. Hootsuite
D. HULK

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Hootsuite is a tool that can be used to search and analyze social media posts, including location data and other personal information shared by users.

8) Juliet, a security researcher in an organization, was tasked with checking for the authenticity of images to be used in the organization's magazines. She used these images as a search query and tracked the original source and details of the images, which included photographs, profile pictures, and memes.

Which of the following footprinting techniques did Rachel use to finish her task?

A. Google advanced search
B. Meta search engines
C. Reverse image search
D. Advanced image search

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Reverse image search allows users to use images as search queries to find similar images and track their original sources.

9) Which file is a rich target to discover the structure of a website during web-server footprinting?

A. domain.txt
B. Robots.txt
C. Document root
D. index.html

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The robots.txt file often contains valuable information about a website's directory structure and organization that can be used during footprinting.

MODULE 3: SCANNING NETWORKS

10) The following Nmap output:
[Image of Nmap scan output]
What command-line parameter could you use to determine the type and version number of the web server?

A. -sV
B. -sS
C. -Pn
D. -V

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The "-sV" parameter is used to determine the service version of the target system. This parameter instructs Nmap to attempt to determine the version of any services running on the target system.

11) While performing an Nmap scan against a host, Paola determines the existence of a firewall.
In an attempt to determine whether the firewall is stateful or stateless, which of the following options would be best to use?

A. -sA
B. -sX
C. -sT
D. -sF

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: From the nmap manual: "-sA (TCP ACK scan) This scan is different than the others discussed so far in that it never determines open (or even open|filtered) ports. It is used to map out firewall rulesets, determining whether they are stateful or not and which ports are filtered."

12) Sam is a penetration tester hired by Inception Tech, a security organization. He was asked to perform port scanning on a target host in the network. While performing the given task, Sam sends FIN/ACK probes and determines that an RST packet is sent in response by the target host, indicating that the port is closed.

What is the port scanning technique used by Sam to discover open ports?

A. Xmas scan
B. IDLE/IPID header scan
C. TCP Maimon scan
D. ACK flag probe scan

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: In an ACK flag probe scan, when the scanner sends an ACK packet to a port on the target host, if the port is closed, the target host will respond with an RST packet.

MODULE 4: ENUMERATION

13) Allen, a professional pen tester, was hired by XpertTech Solutions to perform an attack simulation on the organization's network resources. To perform the attack, he took advantage of the NetBIOS API and targeted the NetBIOS service. By enumerating NetBIOS, he found that port 139 was open and could see the resources that could be accessed or viewed on a remote system. He came across many NetBIOS codes during enumeration.

Identify the NetBIOS code used for obtaining the messenger service running for the logged-in user?

A. <00>
B. <20>
C. <03>
D. <1B>

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The <03> NetBIOS code is associated with where you can retrieve the messenger service for a logged-in user.

14) What protocols can be used to secure an LDAP service against anonymous queries?

A. NTLM
B. RADIUS
C. WPA
D. SSO

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: NTLM can be used to secure LDAP services by requiring authentication, preventing anonymous queries.

15) During the enumeration phase, Lawrence performs banner grabbing to obtain information such as OS details and versions of services running. The service that he enumerated runs directly on TCP port 445.

Which of the following services is enumerated by Lawrence in this scenario?

A. Remote procedure call (RPC)
B. Telnet
C. Server Message Block (SMB)
D. Network File System (NFS)

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Port 445 is used by SMB (Server Message Block), which is a protocol used for sharing files, printers, and other resources in Windows networks.

MODULE 5: VULNERABILITY ANALYSIS

16) What are common files on a web server that can be misconfigured and provide useful information for a hacker such as verbose error messages?

A. httpd.conf
B. administration.config
C. php.ini
D. idq.dll

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: php.ini can disclose more error messages (database etc..) if misconfigured.

17) After gaining initial access to a target system, he finds a list of hashed passwords.
Which of the following tools would not be useful for cracking the hashed passwords?

A. Hashcat
B. John the Ripper
C. THC-Hydra
D. netcat

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Netcat is a networking utility for reading/writing network connections. It cannot be used for password cracking, unlike the other options which are password cracking tools.

18) SQL injection (SQLi) attacks attempt to inject SQL syntax into web requests, which may bypass authentication and allow attackers to access and/or modify data attached to a web application.
Which of the following SQLi types leverages a database server's ability to make DNS requests to pass data to an attacker?

A. In-band SQLi
B. Union-based SQLi
C. Out-of-band SQLi
D. Time-based blind SQLi

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Out-of-band SQLi uses a different channel like DNS to exfiltrate data, leveraging the database server's ability to make DNS requests.

19) What type of vulnerability assessment performed by Johnson in the above scenario?

A. Agent-based scanner
B. Network-based scanner
C. Cluster scanner
D. Proxy scanner

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Agent-based scanners reside on a single machine but can scan several machines on the same network. In this scenario, Johnson installed a scanner on a victim's machine to scan other machines in the network.

MODULE 6: SYSTEM HACKING

20) John wants to send Marie an email that includes sensitive information, and he does not trust the network that he is connected to. Marie gives him the idea of using PGP. What should John do to communicate correctly using this type of encryption?

A. Use his own private key to encrypt the message
B. Use his own public key to encrypt the message
C. Use Marie's private key to encrypt the message
D. Use Marie's public key to encrypt the message

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: When sending an encrypted message using PGP, the sender should use the recipient's public key to encrypt the message. Only the recipient's private key can then decrypt it.

21) In this attack, an adversary tricks a victim into reinstalling an already-in-use key. This is achieved by manipulating and replaying cryptographic handshake messages. When the victim reinstalls the key, associated parameters such as the incremental transmit packet number and receive packet number are reset to their initial values.

What is this attack called?

A. Evil twin
B. Chop chop attack
C. Wardriving
D. KRACK

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: This describes the Key Reinstallation Attack (KRACK), which exploits a vulnerability in the WPA2 handshake process.

22) What type of attack can Mary implement in order to continue?

A. Pass the hash
B. Internal monologue attack
C. LLMNR/NBT-NS poisoning
D. Pass the ticket

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Pass the hash attack allows authentication using captured password hashes without needing to crack them first.

MODULE 7: MALWARE THREATS

23) What is the attack performed by Jack to launch the fileless malware on the target systems?

A. In-memory exploits
B. Legitimate applications
C. Script-based injection
D. Phishing

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Jack used phishing to deliver the fileless malware, sending fraudulent emails with malicious links that appear legitimate to trick users into downloading and executing the malware.

24) Email malware delivery through embedded malicious code in legitimate-looking attachments and links.

What is the type of vulnerability assessment that Morris performed on the target organization?

A. Service-based solutions
B. Product-based solutions
C. Tree-based assessment
D. Inference-based assessment

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Inference-based assessment starts by building an inventory of protocols found on the machine and then detects which ports are attached to services.

MODULE 8: SNIFFING

25) DNS tunneling used by attacker John embeds malicious data into DNS protocol packets that even DNSSEC cannot detect. Using this technique, John successfully injected malware to bypass a firewall and maintained communication with the victim machine and C&C server.

What is the technique employed by John to bypass the firewall?

A. DNSSEC zone walking
B. DNS cache snooping
C. DNS enumeration
D. DNS tunneling method

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: DNS tunneling is a technique that encapsulates other protocols' traffic within DNS queries and responses to bypass security controls.

MODULE 9: SOCIAL ENGINEERING

26) Which of the following Social Engineering attack techniques uses multiple domains pointing to same host?

A. Unspecified proxy activities
B. Remote Access
C. Data staging
D. DNS tunneling

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Unspecified proxy activities involve creating and configuring multiple domains pointing to same host to quickly switch between domains to avoid detection.

27) Steve created a fake profile on social media to trick Stella into revealing company information through building trust and relationship.

What is the social engineering technique employed by Steve?

A. Baiting
B. Piggybacking
C. Diversion theft
D. Honey trap

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: This is an example of a honey trap attack where the attacker creates a fake attractive profile to establish trust and extract information.

28) Johnson claims to be technical support to get victims to execute malicious commands.

What is the social engineering technique employed?

A. Diversion theft
B. Quid pro quo
C. Elicitation
D. Phishing

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Quid pro quo involves offering a service (like technical support) in exchange for information or actions from the victim.

MODULE 10: DENIAL-OF-SERVICE

29) A DDoS attack is performed at layer 7 to take down web infrastructure. Partial HTTP requests are sent to the web infrastructure or applications. Upon receiving a partial request, the target servers opens multiple connections and keeps waiting for the requests to complete.
Which attack is being described here?

A. Desynchronization
B. Slowloris attack
C. Session splicing
D. Phlashing

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: This describes a Slowloris attack, which works by keeping many connections to the target web server open and holding them open as long as possible through partial HTTP requests.

30) Mike was tasked to build defensive strategies for the company's IT infrastructure to thwart DoS/DDoS attacks. Mike deployed some countermeasures to handle jamming and scrambling attacks.
What is the countermeasure Mike applied to defend against jamming and scrambling attacks?

A. Allow the transmission of all types of addressed packets at the ISP level
B. Disable TCP SYN cookie protection
C. Allow the usage of functions such as gets and strcpy
D. Implement cognitive radios in the physical layer

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Cognitive radios can detect and adapt to different frequencies to avoid jamming and scrambling attacks.

MODULE 11: SESSION HIJACKING

31) Boney performs an attack by sending his session ID using an MITM attack technique. Boney first obtains a valid session ID by logging into a service and later feeds the same session ID to the target employee.
What is the attack performed by Boney in the above scenario?

A. Forbidden attack
B. CRIME attack
C. Session donation attack
D. Session fixation attack

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: In session donation attack, the attacker donates their valid session ID to the target user, linking them to the attacker's account without their knowledge.

MODULE 12: EVADING IDS, FIREWALLS, AND HONEYPOTS

32) Daniel is attempting to perform an SQL injection attack on a target website. During this process, he encountered an IDS that detects SQL injection attempts based on predefined signatures. To evade any comparison statement, he attempted placing characters such as "'or '1'='1'" in any basic injection statement such as "or 1=1."
Identify the evasion technique used by Daniel in the above scenario.

A. Char encoding
B. IP fragmentation
C. Variation
D. Null byte

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Variation technique involves altering the SQL injection payload by using character variations to bypass signature-based detection.

MODULE 13: HACKING WEB SERVERS

33) Jane, an ethical hacker, is testing a target organization's web server and website to identify security loopholes. In this process, she copied the entire website and its content on a local drive to view the complete profile of the site's directory structure, file structure, external links, images, web pages, and so on.
What is the attack technique employed by Jane in the above scenario?

A. Session hijacking
B. Website mirroring
C. Website defacement
D. Web cache poisoning

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Website mirroring involves creating a complete copy of a website locally to analyze its structure and content.

34) An organization decided to harden its security against web-application and web-server attacks. John employed a security scanner to automate web-application security testing and detect XSS, directory traversal, SQL injection, etc.
Which security scanner will help John perform this task?

A. AlienVault® OSSIMTM
B. Syhunt Hybrid
C. Saleae Logic Analyzer
D. Cisco ASA

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Syhunt Hybrid is designed specifically for web application security testing with capabilities to detect various web vulnerabilities.

MODULE 14: HACKING WEB APPLICATIONS

35) Suppose that you test an application for the SQL injection vulnerability. You know that the backend database is based on Microsoft SQL Server. In the login/password form, you enter certain credentials.
Based on the credentials, which SQL commands are you expecting to be executed by the server?

A. select * from Users where UserName = 'attack' ' or 1=1 -- and UserPassword = '123456'
B. select * from Users where UserName = 'attack' or 1=1 -- and UserPassword = '123456'
C. select * from Users where UserName = 'attack or 1=1 -- and UserPassword = '123456'
D. select * from Users where UserName = 'attack' or 1=1 --' and UserPassword = '123456'

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: This SQL injection attempt uses string concatenation to bypass authentication by creating a true condition.

36) Stella, a professional hacker, performs an attack on web services by exploiting a vulnerability that provides additional routing information in the SOAP header to support asynchronous communication.
Which attack technique is used by Stella to compromise the web services?

A. Web services parsing attacks
B. WS-Address spoofing
C. SOAPAction spoofing
D. XML injection

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: WS-Address spoofing exploits vulnerabilities in SOAP header routing information used for asynchronous communication.

MODULE 15: SQL INJECTION

37) SQL injection occurs when web application inputs directly use values in SQL statements. What can be used to defend against SQL injection attacks?

A. Input validation
B. Whitelist validation
C. Blacklist validation
D. Output encoding

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Whitelist validation only accepts pre-approved values and input patterns, making it an effective defense against SQL injection.

MODULE 16: HACKING WIRELESS NETWORKS

38) This wireless security protocol allows 192-bit minimum-strength security protocols and cryptographic tools to protect sensitive data, such as GCMP-256, HMAC-SHA384, and ECDSA using a 384-bit elliptic curve.
Which is this wireless security protocol?

A. WPA3-Personal
B. WPA3-Enterprise
C. WPA2-Enterprise
D. WPA2-Personal

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: WPA3-Enterprise provides these advanced security features including 192-bit minimum strength protocols.

39) Jane invites her friends over for a LAN party. Alice and John access Jane's wireless network without a password. However, Jane has a long, complex password on her router. What attack has likely occurred?

A. Wardriving
B. Wireless sniffing
C. Evil twin
D. Piggybacking

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: An evil twin attack occurs when attackers create a fake access point mimicking a legitimate one to intercept connections.

40) There have been concerns that the wireless network is not sufficiently secure. You perform a vulnerability scan and find it is using an old encryption protocol designed to mimic wired encryption.
What encryption protocol is being used?

A. RADIUS
B. WPA
C. WEP
D. WPA3

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: WEP was an early wireless encryption protocol designed to provide wired-equivalent privacy but proved to be insecure.

MODULE 17: HACKING MOBILE PLATFORMS

41) What is the file that determines the basic configuration (specifically activities, services, broadcast receivers, etc.) in an Android application?

A. AndroidManifest.xml
B. classes.dex
C. APK.info
D. resources.asrc

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The AndroidManifest.xml file contains essential configuration information for Android applications including components and permissions.

MODULE 18: IOT AND OT HACKING

42) What is the port to block first in case you are suspicious that an IoT device has been compromised?

A. 22
B. 48101
C. 80
D. 443

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Port 48101 is commonly used by infected IoT devices to spread malicious files. Blocking this port can help prevent malware propagation.

43) Morris, a professional hacker, targeted an organization's IoT cameras and devices. He used an information-gathering tool to collect information about the IoT devices connected to a network, open ports and services, and the attack surface area.
Which tool was employed by Morris in this scenario?

A. NeuVector
B. Lacework
C. Censys
D. Wapiti

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Censys is a search engine that helps discover and analyze internet-connected devices including IoT devices.

MODULE 19: CLOUD COMPUTING

44) Docker architecture components in cloud/container environments: Which component processes API requests and handles Docker objects?

A. Docker objects
B. Docker daemon
C. Docker client
D. Docker registries

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The Docker daemon (dockerd) processes API requests and manages Docker objects like containers, images, and networks.

45) Eric implements a technique that assumes by default that users attempting to access the network are not authentic entities and verifies every connection.
What technique is employed by Eric to secure cloud resources?

A. Demilitarized zone
B. Zero trust network
C. Serverless computing
D. Container technology

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Zero trust network security assumes no user or system is trusted by default and requires verification for all access attempts.

46) Heather's company uses a cloud CRM where they only manage user accounts while the provider handles hardware/software. What type of cloud service model is this?

A. IaaS
B. SaaS
C. PaaS
D. CaaS

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: This describes Software as a Service (SaaS) where the provider manages the infrastructure and application while users only manage their accounts and data.

MODULE 20: CRYPTOGRAPHY

47) In this form of encryption algorithm, every individual block contains 64-bit data, and three keys are used, where each key consists of 56 bits. Which is this encryption algorithm?

A. IDEA
B. Triple Data Encryption Standard
C. AES
D. MD5 encryption algorithm

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Triple DES (3DES) uses three 56-bit keys to encrypt data in 64-bit blocks, applying the DES algorithm three times.

48) Alice needs to send a confidential document to her coworker, Bryan. Their company has public key infrastructure set up. Therefore, Alice both encrypts the message and digitally signs it. Alice uses _____________ to encrypt the message, and Bryan uses _____________ to confirm the digital signature.

A. Bryan's public key; Bryan's public key
B. Alice's public key; Alice's public key
C. Bryan's private key; Alice's public key
D. Bryan's public key; Alice's public key

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: In PKI, messages are encrypted with recipient's public key and digital signatures are verified using sender's public key.

49) When transferring sensitive files, John used a protocol that sends data using encryption and digital certificates to prevent security breaches.
Which protocol did John use?

A. FTPS
B. FTP
C. HTTPS
D. IP

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: FTPS (FTP over SSL/TLS) provides secure file transfer by adding encryption and digital certificates to standard FTP.

50) This form of encryption algorithm is a symmetric key block cipher that is characterized by a 128-bit block size, and its key size can be up to 256 bits. Which is this encryption algorithm?

A. HMAC encryption algorithm
B. Twofish encryption algorithm
C. IDEA
D. Blowfish encryption algorithm

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Twofish is a symmetric block cipher using 128-bit blocks and variable key sizes up to 256 bits.

## Important Notice

This practice test material has been meticulously compiled by experienced instructors, drawing from:
- Official curriculum materials
- Industry-standard resources
- Artificial Intelligence assistance
- Various authenticated sources

## Disclaimer

**Please Note:** This material is intended solely as a supplementary study aid. For comprehensive preparation:
- Complete the official EC-Council training program
- Study official EC-Council courseware thoroughly
- Perform all required hands-on labs and exercises
- Practice with authorized tools and environments

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